The Bible declares in Luke 21:24, “…Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.” The “Times of the Gentiles” refers to the ‘time’ when Israel does  'NOT’ govern their land. So, what period of time is the “Times of the Gentiles”? Beginning in 586BC, when the Babylonians took Judah into captivity (Dan 2:24-45), until 70AD, when the temple was destroyed; continuing on through 135AD, when the Romans defeated the false Messiah, Bar Kochba, and what’s known as ‘The Diaspora’ began, all the way up through 1948 is what’s Biblically known as the “Times of the Gentiles”. In other words, from 586BC through 1948, a period of 2534 years, many different Gentile nations ruled over the nation of Israel!
  Furthermore, in 135AD, when the Romans drove the Jews out of Israel, they changed the name of the land to Philistia to erase any connection of the Jewish people to their land. Therefore, in the natural realm, from 135AD through 1948, the nation of Israel did not exist! I repeat….in the natural realm, no nation of Israel existed between 135AD and 1948!!!!
  On the contrary, however, from God’s perspective, or Biblically, Israel did not cease to exist! And Why? Because God’s covenant of salvation with Israel is “everlasting”! In Tidbit 2 of this series, I used the term “Double Whammy” to describe how in just one verse, Isaiah 45:17 defines Israel’s salvation as: 1.“everlasting salvation” AND,  2.“forever, everlasting, forever!” In other words, from God’s point of view, Israel has a beginning…but Isaiah 45:17 dramatically emphasizes that Israel’s salvation…has no end!!! Therefore, God sovereignly declares Israel has NEVER ceased to exist!
   Moving forward, we discover yet two more confirmations of God’s “everlasting covenant” (“forever, everlasting, forever”-Is45:17) of salvation with Israel! In Romans 10:1, Paul writes, “Brethren, my heart’s desire and prayer to God for Israel is, that they might be saved”*.
  And again, Paul reveals even more details of the word “saved” in Romans 10:1, by adding the word “ALL” in Romans 11:26-29:
“26.And so all Israel shall be saved:** as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
27.For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins.***
28.As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers’ sakes.
29.For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance.”
 
   So, in Romans 10:1 and Romans 11:26-29, Paul refers to a “future” time of Israel’s salvation! Therefore, …if Israel does not exist:
1.How can Paul pray for Israel’s salvation…AND
2.How can Paul declare “ALL Israel shall be saved…AND
3.How can Paul…in the ‘future’ context of Romans 10:1 and Romans 11:26-29 declare “the gifts and calling of God is without repentance.”
 
So, if Paul refers to the ‘forever salvation’ of “all Israel” i.e.Jews, in a future time, when is that future time when “all Israel”…shall be saved?!?!
   To even attempt to answer this question in the context of “Is Israel, Israel?”, we must first assume that at some point the ‘Israel’ i.e.Jews, of Paul’s day is a different ‘Israel’, i.e.Jews of this day.
  So, because Paul wrote his epistle to the Romans before 70AD, which is the future to Paul, did Israel, i.e.the Jews, somehow change their genetic heritage before, during, or after 70AD? What about 135AD? What about anytime before 1948? In other words, what is the evidence that  Israel, i.e.the Jews of 1948, are not descendants of Abraham, Issac, and Jacob? And more importantly, how did this change, i.e.switch…take place?
   If contemporary Israel is not historical Israel, to what ‘Israel’ is Paul directing his revelation in Romans 10:1 and Romans 11:26-29? Remember, in the natural, there was no Israel from 135AD until 1948! So, is another ISRAEL going to rise to receive Isaiah’s and Paul’s “everlasting salvation”? If so, how will we know when, where, or who that Israel is?!?!?!
   Should we ask Tucker Carlson, Candace Owens, or Nick Fuentes to identify this ‘other’ Israel…for us?
 
   For the fourth time….“Is Israel, Israel?” And, for the fourth time, the answer is contemporary Israel is ‘ABSOLUTELY’ the Biblical/historical Israel!!!
 
*Paul borrows the “saved” of Romans 10:1 from Isaiah 45:17, where I repeat, it is called: “everlasting salvation”!
**Along with Romans 10:1, Paul again borrows the salvation of Romans 11:26-27: “And so all Israel shall be saved”, from Isaiah 45:17, which again means “all Israel”…not some Israel, possesses an “everlasting salvation” or “forever, everlasting, forever” (ad owlam ad).
***Remember, God promises to sovereignly remove their sin, through their repentance (Zech12:10; Matt23:39).
***Whose sin is God taking away? The context of Romans 11 refers to Israel, i.e.the Jews.
 
 
QuoteBit
Action’ is the common denominator for all motivation   -Derrick Jackson

  In part 1, I offered natural reasons why contemporary Israel is historical Israel. In part 2, I gave my first Biblical reason. In this tidbit, I want to reveal other Biblical reasons why contemporary Israel is Biblical/historical Israel.
   Biblically, God continually judged Israel for their sin! Why? Because God is perfectly righteous (Deut32:4), He must judge sin (Gen18:25; Ps89:14)! For example, God brought the pagan nation of the Assyrians against the Northern Kingdom of Israel in 722BC--for their sin; and subsequently brought the pagan nation of Babylon against the Southern Kingdom of Judah in 586BC--for their sin! I repeat,  Israel is judged repeatedly for their sin!!!!
  However, because God is no respecter of persons, He also judges the Gentile nations for their sin. For example, why do the following nations no longer exist: the Hittites, Perizzites, Rephaims, Amorites, Amalekites, the Canaanites, the Girgashites, and the Jebusites?!?! Because God is righteous in all His ways and holy in all His works(Ps 145:17), He brought judgment against these nations for their sin! Tragically, because the sin of these Gentile nations was so great, God’s judgment was all-consuming, i.e. His judgment FOREVER destroyed these Gentile nations from the face of the earth!
  However, God makes a difference between the nation of Israel and nations of the world in Jeremiah 46:28: “Fear thou not, O Jacob my servant, saith the LORD: for I am with thee; for I will make a full end of all the nations whither I have driven thee: but I will not make a full end of thee, but correct thee in measure; yet will I not leave thee wholly unpunished.”
  In other words, although God judges all nations, including Israel, for their sin, Jeremiah 46:28 reveals a distinction between Israel and the Gentile nations!!! But why? Even though God is perfectly just(Deut32:4), God has a unique call on Israel, which separates Israel from the nations of the world.
    For example,
“18.The Lord has today declared you to be His people, a treasured possession, as He promised you, and that you should keep all His commandments;
19.and that He will set you high above all nations which He has made, for praise, fame, and honor; and that you shall be a consecrated people to the Lord your God, as He has spoken.”                                     -Deut26:18-19(NAS)
 
“23.And what one nation on the earth is like Your people Israel, whom God went to redeem for Himself as a people and to make a name for Himself, and to do a great thing for You and awesome things for Your land, before Your people whom You have redeemed for Yourself from Egypt, from nations and their gods?
24.For You have established for Yourself Your people Israel as Your own people forever, and You, O Lord, have become their God.
25.Now therefore, O Lord God, the word that You have spoken concerning Your servant and his house, confirm it forever, and do as You have spoken”   
-2Sam7:23-25(NAS)
 
   In other words,
1.God judges both the Gentile nations and Israel for their sin. Romans 2:9 declares: “Tribulation and anguish, upon every soul of man that doeth evil, of the Jew first, and also of the Gentile”. The word “First” in Romans 2:9 reveals the Divine order of judgment. In other words, Israel will be judged for their sin before or prior to the Gentile nations because God made His covenant first with Israel. So, God has higher expectations for Israel than the other pagan nations.
2.He gives both Jew and Gentile space to repent(Rev2:21; Gen15:16)
3.If Israel does not repent, God must judge Israel first, which means although He may judge Israel using different measures or intensities of judgment (2Chron12:7), BUT…He will NEVER totally destroy Israel from the face of the earth.
4.If the Gentile nations do not repent, God can choose to give those violating nations a measure of mercy, BUT…He can also choose to forever destroy them from the face of the earth (Gen15:16; Ex17:16).
   Therefore, Israel is the only nation in the world, AND in the history of the world, that God will not completely wipe from the face of the earth for their sin! Why? I repeat, because God’s unique call on Israel….is forever! For example, the word for “forever” in 2Samuel 7:24 and 25 is the Hebrew word ‘owlam’! When ‘owlam’ is applied to God, it means eternal; or, God has no beginning and no end. However, when owlam is applied to God’s creation, it means that creation has a beginning, but no end.
   Because Israel is a creation of God(Is43:15), when owlam is applied to Israel, it means the nation of Israel has a beginning, but has no end. In 2Samuel 7:24, God applies owlam to Israel…therefore Israel has a beginning, but cannot have an end!
   Again, all this does NOT mean God will not judge Israel according to their sin! I repeat, all throughout the Old Testament, Israel was judged for their sin--repeatedly!!! However, because God has a unique covenant with Israel, and that covenant is forever (owlam), unlike what God did with other nations who sinned against Him, He cannot judge Israel into total oblivion!! Therefore, Israel cannot cease to exist…because their existence is rooted in the ‘forever’ covenant of God with Israel!
   So, when Israel became a nation again in 1948, that was God’s ‘forever’ covenant working on them. In other words, although Israel had not been in existence before 1948--in the natural realm--because of God's 'forever' covenant, the nation of Israel could not remain in that non-existent state, but had to literally manifest, i.e.come back into existence, or back into the natural realm---and I repeat, because of God's "forever covenant"!
      And what's more, now that Israel is back in existence, that same 'forever' covenant will prevent them from ever going out of existence...again(Jer31:36-37)! 
 
   So, “Is Israel, Israel”?  ABSOLUTELY!!! God’s covenant with Israel is FOREVER!!!
 
*Is 43:15- “I am the LORD, your Holy One, the creator of Israel, your King”. The Hebrew word for “creator” is “bara”, and is the same Hebrew word used by God to create both the heavens and earth, as well as man in Genesis 1!!!
 
 
QuoteBit
Motivation comes through vision, thoughts, and words, but only your resulting actions can turn that motivation in reality.                                                  -Derrick Jackson

   In my last tidbit, I offered several ‘natural’ reasons to affirm that contemporary Israel is indeed the Biblical(historical) Israel. In this tidbit, I want to break open the Word of God to offer my ‘spiritual’ reasons that contemporary Israel is synonymous with Biblical/historical Israel.
   The King James version of Isaiah 45:17:
“But Israel shall be saved in the LORD with an everlasting salvation: ye shall not be ashamed nor confounded world without end.” 
  The New American Standard version says:
“Israel has been saved by the Lord with an everlasting salvation; You will not be put to shame or humiliated to all eternity.”

   The context of Isaiah 45 begins with God introducing Himself to Cyrus, the pagan King of Persia! God points Cyrus to His works of creation as evidence for His sovereignty and power over all things, and in this particular case, God refers to using King Cyrus to free His people, Israel, from their 70-year exile in Babylon.
  Next, notice that everything that occurs up to verse 17 depends on God alone…not on the actions of Israel!! I repeat, Isaiah 45:17 declares the action of this context is God working sovereignly in behalf of Israel…apart from their involvement!
   Now that the foundation is set, let’s interpret Isaiah 45:17. My first keyword in this verse is “saved” (yasha), which means wide or free, to be safe; deliver, help, preserve, rescue (Strong’s). My second keyword is “salvation” (teshûʿâh) and means national deliverance, help, safety, salvation, victory (Strong’s). In addition, yasha is a root of the second word teshûʿâh. These definitions are critical because, they show what ‘GOD ALONE’ is going to do for Israel!
  Let’s continue. The word “everlasting” in Isaiah 45:17 is the word ‘owlam’ and means eternity or everlasting; continuance, perpetual (Strong’s). In other words, when ‘owlam’ is applied to God, as in Psalms 90:2- “…even from everlasting to everlasting, thou art God”; ‘owlam’ means eternal—or, that which has no beginning and no end. ‘Eternality’ is an attribute of God and means He has no beginning and no end. So, God was not created, but always has, and always will…exist as God!
   On the other hand, when ‘owlam’ is applied to man, or a specific aspect of God’s creation, it means ‘everlasting’ or ‘forever’, or has a beginning, but no end.
  Let’s now move forward to the latter part of the verse: “world without end”! The Hebrew words are: “ad owlam ad”!  First, notice the word “owlam” appears a second time in this verse! Second, the definition of ‘ad’ means duration, perpetuity, eternity (Strong’s), which means that although ‘ad’ and ‘owlam’ are different Hebrew words, they are synonyms, possessing ‘eternity’ in their definitions!
   For emphasis, allow me to repeat myself. God inspired into the latter half of Isaiah 45:17 the Hebrew word ‘ad’ before and after the word ‘owlam’: ‘ad owlam ad’…even though both words have ‘eternity’ in their definitions! Literally, ‘ad owlam ad’ could be interpreted as ‘eternity, eternity, eternity’!
   So, the first ‘owlam’ in verse 17: owlam teshûʿâh is “everlasting salvation” and refers directly to the salvation of Israel; and the second ‘owlam’ (‘ad owlam ad’), which has ‘ad’ before and after it, also refers to the “salvation” of Israel.
   I’m aware that the words “ashamed” and ‘confounded” are followed by the words “world without end”(‘ad owlam ad’), but both “ashamed” and “confounded” are part of God’s salvation for Israel. In other words, the two words describe aspects of God’s salvation to Israel, or what God does as part of saving Israel.
   So…why all the emphasis on the salvation of Israel in this context? There can be only one answer: to emphasize, highlight, underscore, describe…the ‘length of time’, and ‘width of space’…that God SAVES Israel!!
   In other words, the literal interpretation of Isaiah 45:17 is a double whammy! In the first part of the verse, God calls Israel to an “everlasting salvation” using the Hebrew words “owlam teshûʿâh”. However, to make certain we understand His point, God repeats His focus on Israel’s salvation using the Hebrew words:  ‘ad owlam ad’ (“world with end”)!
Following is a visual:
      1.first part of Isaiah 45:17, God promises to save Israel using the
         words “everlasting salvation” (owlam teshûʿâh)!

In case you missed His point, God repeats Himself using different words:

      2.second part of 45:17: God AGAIN points to Israel’s salvation, but
         adds “ashamed” and “confounded” into the context, as part of His
          salvation for Israel
 
BUT…the focus of the first and second parts of the verse is the same…God’s wonderful salvation for Israel!
   As a reminder…because the word “eternity” (no beginning and no end) is reserved for God, the words ‘owlam’ and ‘ad’ in Isaiah 45:17 cannot refer to God. Because Israel is a creation of God(Is43:15), the words ‘owlam’ and ‘ad’, can only refer to Israel, and Israel’s salvation.
   Therefore, and incredibly, the first part of Isaiah 45:17 means Israel’s salvation is ‘owlam teshûʿâh’:
             “Everlasting salvation” or
             “Forever salvation”
   And the second part of Isaiah 45:17 means Israel’s salvation is ‘ad owlam ad’:
             “Forever, Everlasting, Forever” or
              “Everlasting, Forever, Everlasting” or
              “Forever, Forever, Forever” or
              “Everlasting, Everlasting, Everlasting”
 
What an ABSOLUTELY AMAZING revelation!!
 
   How can the words “Everlasting” and “Forever” apply to Israel’s salvation if Israel does not exist, or has changed to another Israel? On the contrary, from the time Israel was created…to this day, the existence of Israel, and the salvation of Israel are…EVERLASTING, i.e. FOREVER!
 
So, “Is Israel, Israel?!?!  ABSOLUTELY YES!

   I have always believed that there are no dumb questions…‘IF’ the person asking the question sincerely desires an answer. I can only choose to believe the many who ask the question of the title of this tidbit…are sincere!
  First, this question is only asked of Israel!!! In other words, no other nation is questioned regarding their past-present identity! For example, no one asks if the great historical nations like China, India, or Egypt are the same as contemporary China, India, or Egypt!! No one has the chutzpa to ask of the more recent nations: Is Canada, Canada? Is Russia, Russia? Is Bulgaria, Bulgaria? And…what about the United States?
  Furthermore, regarding nations like Ghana, which was born in 1957; Nigeria in 1960; and Sudan, which is recognized as the most recent independent nation, born in 2011; YET…not ONE media personality or political pundit asks whether these nations are legitimate!!!
  So, why is this question directed ‘ONLY’ at Israel? The simple answer is: closeted anti-semitism! People like Tucker Carlson, Candace Owens, Nick Fuentes, and a host of liberal Social Media pundits, all accuse Israel of genocide to support their ‘declaration’ that the contemporary state of Israel is NOT…Biblical Israel!! On the other hand, groups like the Black Hebrew Israelites just boldly shout: “Black people are true Jews; the real Israel!”
  However, if contemporary* Israel is not Biblical/historical Israel, may I ask two questions:
1.Who are the people presently in the land of Israel, who call themselves Jews? AND...
2.Who are the real Jews/Israelites?
    The first reason I believe that contemporary* Israel is in fact Biblical/historical Israel is a ‘natural’** reason, or what I call the ‘Persecution Argument’. In short, the ‘Persecution Argument’ goes like this: No other nation in the world, or in the history of the world, over such an extended period of time, has ever experienced such persecution as the Jews/Israel!!! If you follow the Jews back in time for thousands of years, you will find one glaring, common denominator: PERSECUTION! Everything from murder***; to expulsion from countries; to being blamed for plagues; all the way down to prohibition from living spaces and certain types of employment! Sadly, the word “Jew” is, and has been, synonymous with persecution!
    So…why is Jewish persecution more intense and more common than any other? The number one reason is God’s unique calling upon the Jew! Deuteronomy 7:6-8 declares
6.For thou art an holy people unto the LORD thy God: the LORD thy God hath chosen you to be a special people unto himself, above all people that are upon the face of the earth.
7.The LORD did not set his love upon you, nor choose you, because ye were more in number than any people; for ye were the fewest of all people:
8.But because the LORD loved you, and because he would keep the oath which he had sworn unto your fathers, hath the LORD brought you out with a mighty hand, and redeemed you out of the house of bondmen, from the hand of Pharaoh king of Egypt.****
    Therefore, because of God’s unique call on Israel/Jew, Satan has repeatedly tried to destroy them from their beginning (Gen 12:1-3), when God created Israel(Is43:15)---to this present day, all the way to the future (Rev12)!! In other words, because Satan cannot attack God, he attacks those whom God loves! Thus…the origin of Jew-hatred, and its action of persecution…is Satan!
   Because it is only natural to ask why persecution exists anywhere, at anytime, for any group or person, it is therefore reasonable to ask why Israel has been persecuted, and so intensely persecuted...for 2700 years! And I repeat, the ‘Persecution Argument’ contends that reason is God’s unique call on the Jew.
   If you require more evidence for my ‘Persecution Argument’, look no further than the Holocaust. Although the Holocaust is not responsible for the mass murder of the most people in history, it is determined by most to be the worst tragedy because of the creativity the Nazis used in slaughtering Jews! Here is the question: Did Hitler not know he was slaughtering the wrong people? Was Hitler not aware that…the Biblical/historical Jew had passed away, and the contemporary Jew he tried to annihilate…was not Jewish!?!?! 
   Considering Tucker Carlson's and Candace Owens' views on contemporary Israel/Jews, for either of them to attempt to answer the previous question must be quite confusing!! However, I assure you…it was not confusing for Adolf Hitler! He perfectly understood what he was doing!
   On the contrary, this confusion would have quickly disappeared if Hitler had simply chosen to annihilate millions of Black people instead!!! Remember, according to the Black Hebrew Israelites, Blacks--are the real Jews(Rev2:9)!
  And what’s more astonishing is that before the Jews were burned in Nazi ovens, why did not a single Jewish victim shout, “Hey Adolf, you’ve got the wrong people, we ain’t the real Jews, the Blacks are!” Let me tell you, if any pseudo-Jews had faced Hitler’s gas chambers, I think they would have quickly capitulated, confessing to their real identity! However, the record is clear…there was no Jewish capitulation on the actual identity!
  Allow me to offer one more piece of evidence for my ‘Persecution Argument’. World War 2 ended in 1945 when many Jews who survived the Nazi genocide fled to what is now the land of Israel. Tragically, a mere three years after surviving Hitler’s genocide--the same Jews—faced a second genocide when they were attacked by 6 surrounding Muslim Arab nations—who promised to push the Jews into the Mediterranean Sea!!
   Gratefully, in God’s providence, those 6 Muslim nations neglected to read Deuteronomy 20:4: “For the LORD your God is he that goeth with you, to fight for you against your enemies, to save you.” Therefore, on May 14, 1948, which Isaiah so accurately prophesied would happen “IN ONE DAY” (Is66:8); after 2534 years (586BC to 1948)---the nation of Israel was re-born!
   Can you literally name another nation in history with so many attempts, and differing methods to destroy it, than just the few I have mentioned about the nation of Israel?!?!
  So, “Is Israel, Israel?” Their unique persecution shouts a resounding…YES! There has never been, nor will there ever be---more than one nation of Israel! I repeat, No such ‘Biblical/historical Israel’ and ‘contemporary Israel’ exists!  
 
  To be continued!
 
 *To ask “Is Israel, Israel?” requires the existence of ‘contemporary Jews’ and ‘historical Jews!’ First, why is this even a question? And second, to answer “Is Israel, Israel?” requires the following:
1.Who are the historical Jews? & Who are the contemporary Jews?
2.When did the division or transition happen?
3.How did the division or transition happen? 
Just one problem…these three questions can only be answered by an anti-semite!!!!
**I will offer spiritual reasons in future tidbits.
***Both accused of murder; AND being murdered!
****Other passages confirming Israel’s unique call: Deut26,18,19; Jer31:35-37; Rom1:16.