The ‘Spiritual’ Origins of White Privilege-2

    In part 1 of this tidbit, I argued that the “spiritual” origins of White Privilege are the sins of idolatry and blasphemy. In other words, the idea of WP creates in its advocates both idolatry and blasphemy. I would like to add 2 more variables to support my position:
           1.Absolute White Privilege
           2.Cultural White Privilege
 
If you examine the term “White privilege” you will notice that its foundation is “Whiteness” not privilege. As I argued in part 1, the idea of “privilege” is what the Bible calls favor(Ps5:12). In other words, favor, i.e.privilege, does in fact exist. However, the favor or privilege of God originates in either:
i.Spiritual privilege. In other words, who you(mankind) are, i.e.mankind’s identity. This means God gives favor according to Who God made you:
        a.Mankind (Gen1:28). God made man in His image through the
          Adamic Covenant
        b.Righteousness(Ps5:12). On the other hand, God requires
           righteousness in man, through the Abrahamic Covenant (Rom5:17-
           29; Gal3:29).  
ii.Natural privilege. This privilege happens through what mankind:
          a.Produces (Gen1:28; Lu19:13; Pro20:11). All mankind is called to
              produce, which God blesses.
          b.Moral (righteous) behavior(Is1:19;Ps84:11). For example, it’s
               possible for sinners to obey certain of God’s law, i.e.marriage,
               at least for a period of time, which can facilitate God’s blessing
               to them.
                                                                   
   These two factors (spiritual and natural privilege) originate in God’s benevolent will; which refers to His general desire to bless mankind—both the righteous (entire Bible) and the unrighteous(Rom2:4; Jer31:3)—therefore, and I repeat, favor(privilege) is Biblical, i.e.godly.    
   On the contrary, if we examine the “Whiteness” of White Privilege, it can only exist as either absolute or cultural. What do I mean? Let’s examine ‘absolute White Privilege’ first. The absolute nature of WP –in general--refers to human beings who are White that exist all over the world. For example, there are nations where White people comprise a majority, like Russia, Germany, and France etc., and other nations where White people comprise a minority, like Japan, China, or Ghana. Here is the question: are the White people of the nations where they exist, as either a majority or a minority…still White? Of course! Obviously! Duh!! Therefore, because the White people of those nations are all White, if WP originates from ‘Whiteness’---and is absolute--then it must follow that the White people of those nations must possess WP!
    On the contrary however, if you actually examine the reality of the existence of ‘absolute’ WP—all over the world--we find something entirely different! For example, does a White person in Ghana (a black African nation) have WP? Or, a White person in China (a yellow racial nation)? Or, how about a White person in Japan (a yellow racial nation)? If we are honest...the answer is NO! This is irrefutable evidence that WP does not exist according to the absolute nature of “Whiteness”! In other words, the fact that White people possess less melanin than Black, Brown, Red or Yellow people does not actually mean that all White people absolutely have privilege!
   Moving forward, if the privilege of “Whiteness” is not absolute (universal), unless there are other choices I’ve missed, WP must be cultural. In other words, in the context of this tidbit, ‘cultural WP’ applies only to America. Therefore, here is the essence of ‘cultural WP’: because Whites have dominated America, i.e. created its systems to favor Whites, all White people in America have White Privilege over other races! The question now before us is, ‘IS THIS TRUE?’
   My response: if WP applies only to American Whites; or if Whites have privilege in America over Black, Brown, Yellow or Red people…because of their ‘Whiteness’:
           1.How do you account for all the Whites in America that are poor,
             destitute, and even illiterate? The number of Whites on welfare is
             nearly double the number of Blacks. Does this constitute
            ‘cultural WP’?
           2.How do you account for the Whites in prison in comparison to
              those other races who are not in prison? Can this be designated
              as ‘cultural WP’?
           3.How do you account for the vast number of non-Whites in
              American sports, like the NFL and NBA, where 80% of those
             leagues are Black? I repeat, is this ‘cultural WP’?
           4.How do you account for incomes of ethnic groups in America,
              where non-Whites like Indians(from India), Taiwanese, and
              Filipino Americans have all pushed-ahead of American Whites?
 
   In conclusion, the moment “White” is placed in front of “Privilege”, i.e. “White Privilege”, the privilege ceases to come from God, and begins to come from race, which ‘is’ racism; and, why it is called “White Privilege”!! Therefore, because nothing in the Bible teaches that God gives privilege to color or race, then WP can only be designated as a false or unBiblical doctrine!
         “This wisdom descendeth not from above, but is earthly, sensual,
           devilish.”   -Jms3:15
 
         “1.Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times
             some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits,
             and doctrines of devils;
          2.Speaking lies in hypocrisy; having their conscience seared with a
              hot iron”      -1Tim4:1,2
 
 
QuoteBit
The key factor that will determine your financial future is not the economy; the key factor is your philosophy. – Jim Rohn