In 1631, Rodger Williams was accused and found guilty of preaching ‘religious liberty’ in England, which lead to his flight across the ocean to Boston. First, this teaches ‘religious liberty’ was illegal in England. And second, it confirms the original and primary reason: ‘religious liberty’, that first the Pilgrims, followed by the Puritans, whom were both Christian groups, left England for America.
Because ‘religious liberty’ was against the law in England, the Christian doctrine* of the ‘separation of church and state’, was first created and coined by English pastor Richard Hooker(1554-1600)—to refute the persecution by the English Anglican church of any and every dissenting voice.
I repeat, because of English laws against ‘religious liberty’; for over 200 years--from Pastor Hooker(1600) until 1802--when President Jefferson used the term ‘separation of church and state’ in a letter to the Danbury Baptists, it was defined as to prohibit the government from interfering with religious practice**!! Hence, the very first amendment in the Constitution(1789), declared: "Congress shall make no law respecting the establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof."
Confirming the original, ‘Christian’ definition (Hooker’s definition) of ‘the separation of church and state’, and condemning the new liberal re-definition, President Thomas Jefferson, who is falsely attributed by liberals as its creator***, wrote to Samuel Miller on January 23, 1808: "I consider the government of the U.S. as interdicted (prohibited) by the Constitution from intermeddling with religious institutions, their doctrines, discipline, or exercises.”
Hence, the very person liberals use as evidence for their false re-interpretation; is the very person who condemns that re-interpretation!
Here is one key (of several) to unlock understanding! The Founding Fathers, and the Americans in general, were undeniably, and irrefutably Christians or Christianized****. Although they understood the definition of the term “religion”, the Founding Fathers used it in a dual manner; where the context most often determined which meaning. The two meanings of ‘religion’ were:
1.religion=Christianity, Judaism, Islam, Hinduism, Buddhism, etc., i.e. the traditional definition.
2.religion=denominations within Christianity: Baptist, Catholic, Anglicanism, Methodism, etc.
For example, Thomas Jefferson wrote Elbridge Gerry on January 26, 1799:
“I am for the freedom of religion, and against all maneuvers to bring about the legal ascendency of one sect over another.” (Doubting Thomas, Mark Beliles, pg51)
This statement is easily understood to fall under definition 2 above: denominations. Jefferson used “sects” to refer to Christian denominations---because Americans were overwhelmingly Christian—but of different denominations! Therefore, the second half of his statement: “one sect over another”, qualifies “freedom of religion” used at the beginning.
Thomas Jefferson likewise replied to a Quaker, named Thomas Leiper.
“…as for myself, my religious reading has long been confined to the moral branch of religion, which is the same in all religions; while in that branch which consists of dogmas, all differ, all have a different set. The former instructs us how to live well and worthily
in society; the latter are made to interest our minds in the support
of the teachers who inculcate them. Hence, for one sermon on a
moral subject, you hear ten on the dogmas of the sect. However,
religion is not the subject for you and me. Neither of us knows the
religious opinions of the other. That is a matter between our maker
and ourselves…” (Doubting Thomas, Mark Beliles, pg111)
Jefferson separates Christian religious teaching into two camps: morality and doctrine. He argues the moral teaching is the same for all religions, i.e. Christian denominations. He can therefore only be referring to Christianity here because the moral teachings of all religions: Christianity, Hinduism, Islam, etc., are certainly not the same!! Only within Christian denominations are moral teachings the same; while their dogmas are not.
Jefferson wrote back to Presbyterian James Fishback on June 5, 1809:
“the interests of society require the observation of those moral
precepts only in which all religions agree…” “The practice of
morality being necessary for the well-being of society…” “We all
agree in the obligation of the moral precepts of Jesus, and nowhere
will they be found delivered in greater purity than in his
discourses…” (Doubting Thomas, Mark Beliles, pg112)
Jefferson teaches moral concepts are that of which “all religions agree”, i.e. Christian denominations. He concludes that we (Americans) all agree on the “moral precepts of Jesus”, found in the Bible…and of Whom he declares is the origin of morality! These are not the words of an atheist or deist…but the words of one who prefers ‘Christianity’ for ‘public’ discourse!
This thinking was in no-way limited to Jefferson. George Mason originally suggested the wording of the First Amendment to be:
"All men have an equal, natural and unalienable right to the
free exercise of religion, according to the dictates of conscience;
and that no particular sect or society of Christians ought to be
favored or established by law in preference to others."
In 1787, Benjamin Franklin wrote the following for the people of Europe wanting to relocate to America: "To this may be truly added, that serious religion, under its various denominations, is not only tolerated but respected and practiced. Atheism is unknown there."
Supreme Court Justice Joseph Story, appointed by George Washington, and who started the Harvard law school, referred to the first amendment declaring: “The real object of the amendment was, not to countenance, much less advance the Mahometanism, or Judiasm, or infidelity, by prostrating Christianity; but to exclude all rivalry among Christian Sects…”
Antidisestablishmentarianism, the longest word in the dictionary, refers to the great American truth established in the first amendment, that Congress cannot make a law for or against a religion; which again meant denomination. Why? Because every state previously established their own religion, i.e. denomination! The first amendment declared, "Congress shall make no law respecting the establishment of religion…” which referred to a preference of one denomination over another, and as I said, had been the historical practice of the colonies for some time!! I repeat, disestablishmentarianism forever forbade a state from preferring one denomination over another…not from preferring Christianity!!! Both Jefferson and Madison attempted to pass a bill to ‘disestablish’ the Anglican/Episcopalian denomination in Virginia, who were collecting taxes from the state’s people--for their denomination--while persecuting all dissenters. Those people who disagreed with their bill were called anti-disestablishmentarianists.
On the contrary, John Jay appointed the first chief justice by George Washington, writing to Jedidiah Morse on Feb. 28, 1797, made it perfectly clear, “Providence has given to our people the choice of their rulers. And it is the duty as well as the privilege and interest of a Christian nation to select and prefer Christians for their rulers.”
Every nation---without exception--has a god; but only that nation whose God is the Lord is blessed: “Blessed is the nation whose God is the LORD…”-Ps33:12. Therefore, the First Amendment prohibits preference of one Christian denomination over another---but like John Jay said, it does allow for the preference of Christianity! Remember, these were Christians who created these laws! How stupid would they have been to outlaw their own doctrine!!
Contrary to liberalism/atheism, America was, and still is, a Christian nation!
*The ‘separation of church and state’ is a doctrine of Christianity defining the divine separation of the ‘purpose’ of the state, from the ‘purpose’ of the church. Yet, this highlights liberalism’s deception and hypocrisy!! By nature, liberalism rejects God and His word—for it is a social doctrine of atheism. However, liberalism uses the Christian doctrine of ‘the separation of church and state’, to reject God from any influence on the state. In essence, they use God’s law to reject God!! Explain that one if you can!!!
**In reality, this was the definition until Emerson in 1947, when liberals changed it to mean exactly opposite, where now Congress makes laws restricting religious practice!
***By ignoring the actual originator of the term ‘separation of church and state’, liberalism is free to re-interpret its actual meaning. In other words, they simply change its history, to change its future! This is yet another confirmation of liberalism’s primary tool of deception: word manipulation!!
****A Christianized person is one who is not necessarily born-again, but is highly influenced by Judaeo/Christian ethic…because that view of good and evil dominates the culture. The Christian world-view highly influenced many, but not all, Americans from the beginning.
Your upbringing and past circumstance may have influenced who you now are, but, you are responsible for who you become. -- unknown